Variability
Geographical, chronological, social and variability depending on the register. In the matter of chronological variability, we can make a distinction between:
- Synchronic variationà change in a particular period of time.
- Diachronic variationà looks at the changes from one period to another.
If we observe that there are many similarities (such as accent, vocabulary, grammar aspects…) and that they are not accidental, therefore we can conclude saying that they belong to a particular dialect or language.
No, we cannot treat the course of a language by drawing lines and marking out limits. When one historical period ends (or so we like to say in order to study history in an easier way), a language cannot change completely because it is uninterrupted and continuous. Yes, some changes in language may depend on what has happened in that period of time (invasions of other countries, a change in the social organisation, standardisation of a language…), but all this will always be linked to a past and to a future. Therefore, is not reasonable to focus on language synchronically.
Can you think of any example of non-professional attitudes to your own language?
Yes. 1. The attitude with the ideal of a correct form of language, this is, a standard language that never changes and which ignores dialects.
2. The attitude which look at dialects as something totally independent, even considering them as a language.
Why does Milroy use “scare quotes” around non-standard and errors?
Because for him there’s not such thing as non-standard dialects and he doesn’t perceive linguistic changes as errors.
Are non-standard dialects “incorrect, irregular, ungrammatical and deviant”?
The concept of standard language itself is contradictory and non realistic and so it is saying “non-standard dialects”. Change (i.e a dialect) happens, that’s all, and we cannot say a dialect is correct or incorrect, grammatical or ungrammatical… The need and desire for standardisation is more related to political power and geographical separation or independence rather than to the language.
Which of these systems is more irregular? Why?
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Myself Yourself Himself Herself Ourselves Themselves |
Myself Yourself Hisself Herself Ourselves Theirselves |
The first column, because when adding the suffix –self or –selves to the possessive adjectives, in the case of the pronouns his and their it changes to an object pronoun.
Constraints: what changes are possible and what are not
Embedding: how change spreads from a central point through a speech community
Evaluation: social responses to language change (prestige overt and covert attitudes to language, linguistic stereotyping and notions on correctness).
Transition: “the intervening stages which can be observed, or which must be posited, between any two forms of a language defined for a language community at different times” Weinreich, Labov and Herzog 1968: 101)
Actuation: Why particular changes take place at a particular time.
Actuation: Why did /k/ palatalize before certain front vowels? PrsE: cheese, German käse English/Norse doublets shirt/skirt?